Iliad and Odyssey as evidence
Posted: Fri Feb 18, 2011 7:13 pm
I have a general question about the Iliad and Odyssey as evidence of unconsciousness and I am wondering if anyone can help me out.
The Odyssey presents so many contradictions to the bicameral mind theory, while the Iliad seems to fit almost perfectly. How is this possible? If they were both written by the same poet (although I know this is debatable - but let's assume they were), how could he be "conscious" for one book but not the other?
Am I missing anything here?
Thanks in advance
The Odyssey presents so many contradictions to the bicameral mind theory, while the Iliad seems to fit almost perfectly. How is this possible? If they were both written by the same poet (although I know this is debatable - but let's assume they were), how could he be "conscious" for one book but not the other?
Am I missing anything here?
Thanks in advance